I agree that you have no idea what you are talking about. You obviously don,t know what a team effort is, because what we are doing here is trying to create a better system for all. so if that is all you are going to do here, please go somewhere else to bad mouth people.

First of all, Igor is not Russian, he is not even from an ex-communist country.
And secondly, what the hell are you talking about? I wonder how people like you end up posting in FX forums. Never read such an incoherent post anywhere....

P.S. Dewd, you must be white thrash....

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forex_for_lowlife: Your comments on Igor are senseless and you reached out of proprtions.
By the way, what's wrong with ex-Soviets?
If you ever read the literature, then you could have known the greatness of Boris Pasternak's creational character, Dr. Zhivago.
First try to learn your manners, then think of your forex.

You are an IDIOT!.

Sincerely,
rswamy4449

well..I think he was right about me!

I understand what you are saying when you take the stoploss into account and rick means how much you are willing to lose.

You must have posted different code. The function I copied from your earlier post does not use stoploss anywhere. If risk is 10 it returns 10% of the account equity. For a 10K account it returns 1 lot. If the stoploss is 50 then the loss trade would be a max of $500 if there is no slippage. This is 5% of the account. That means an actual risk of 5%. The risk input is more like percent of account to trade.

Robert

Yup, thats how all my MM modules work on all my EAs. % of equity!
Maybe there is a SL % MM somewhere, but I never saw that!
What burns mean maybe is the classical manual risk calculation of trading. And then you use his way to calculate the max % of possible loss due to SL.

Are you sure you are not talking about the code from nix (the autolot function)?

I posted the code into post 1046, which you quoted in post 1048:
http://www.forex-tsd.com/150350-post1048.html

This line:
double lotMM = ( AccountFreeMargin() * (accountRisk/100) )/( MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_TICKVALUE) * stopInPips );

As you see, "stopInPips" is used in the equation. This function: MarketInfo(Symbol(),MODE_TICKVALUE) returns the value of 1 pip when you have 1 lot.

Since you were a mathematical analyst, let's do some math:

For USD/JPY:
$25k free margin, with a 1.5% risk, 50 pip stop loss:
(25,000 * .015)/(8.68 * 50) = 375/434 = .86 lots

.86 lots * 8.68 = 7.47 pip value (1 pip = $7.47)
50 pips * $7.47 = $373.50 (due to rounding, not quite $375)

So, let's see what happens with a 100 pip stop loss:
(25,000 * .015)/(8.68 * 100) = 375/868 = .43 lots
.43 lots * 8.68 = 3.73 pip value (1 pip = $3.73)
100 pips * $3.73 = $373 (again, due to rounding, not quite $375)

No matter what stoploss you put in, the dollar amount risked remains constant for this size account using this risk percent. As your account size changes, so will the dollar amount risked, but the percent risked remains the same. The stoploss does not affect the percent risked, only how much currency you buy.

If you see fault with my calculations, please tell me.

Thanks,
burn0050

__________________
He who laughs last thinks slowest

!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

I'm an absolute zero in coding...but looks like you are right on this one.
It's just the first time I see this. And I like it...by the way...as it is a real calculation of equity risk!

You go to whoever sold you the trip you are on and ask for money back because you are on a really bad trip, "dewd"